> My question is this. Since it's possible that a marriage
> may seem to have taken place, when in fact it had not, is it
> also possible that a baptism seems to have taken place when
> in fact it had not? I am thinking in the context of a
> situation where Catholicism is more a culture than a faith
> and the baptism was performed simply out of social custom,
> without having any idea (or care) of what the sacrament is
> all about.
>
> IOW, are all baptized Catholics really baptized?
>
> Sincerely,
>
> Ajig Alcalde
Dear Ajig,
Winter before last I wrote some messages about baptism, parts of
which I'll repeat here for you with some added comment. These
excerpts contain some paragraphs from the Catechism of the
Catholic Church (CCC), for which I give paragraph numbers.
As God calls all men into the fellowship of his Son (1 Cor 1:9),
so he truly and earnestly desires the salvation of all without
exception, "not wanting any to perish, but all to come to
repentance" (2 Pet. 3:9; cf. 1 Tim. 2:4). So Christ died to
redeem all mankind: "he is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and
not for ours only but also of the sins of the whole world" (1
John 2:2; cf. 2 Cor. 5:15; 1 Tim. 2:6; Rom. 5:18-19).
The next step is to affirm that "our justification comes from the
GRACE of God. Grace is FAVOR, the FREE AND UNDESERVED HELP that
God gives us to respond to his call to become children of God,
adoptive sons, partakers of the divine nature and of eternal
life" (CCC no. 1996). We have this grace by Jesus Christ's
saving deed of redemption: "They are now justified by his grace
as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus" (Rom.
3:24; cf. John 1:16-17; Tit. 2:11).
Without grace there is no justification, no salvation. "By grace
you have been saved through faith, and this is not your own
doing; it is the gift of God" (Eph 2:5). Grace, then, is the
paramount necessity for salvation. Grace is absolutely necessary
for salvation.
Baptism is also necessary for salvation, because justification an
grace are conferred in baptism. The Second Vatican Council
teaches: "the one Christ is mediator and the way of salvation...
He himself explicitly asserted the necessity of faith and
baptism..." (Constitution on the Church, 14). "The Lord himself
affirms that Baptism is necessary for salvation (cf. John 3:5) ...
Baptism is necessary for salvation for those to whom the Gospel
has been proclaimed and who have had the possibility of asking
for this sacrament" (CCC no. 1257).
The necessity of baptism for salvation is treated in nos.
1257-1261 of CCC. "Baptism is necessary for salvation for those
to whom the Gospel has been proclaimed and who have had the
possibility of asking for this sacrament" (no. 1257).
For baptism or any other sacrament to be given, there are certain
objective standards which must e fulfilled in order for the
sacrament to exist at all. These are the outward, sensible
action (matter) and the words (form). In addition to these, it
is necessary for the minister to have the intention of doing what
the Church does. The union of these three --- matter, form, and
ministerial intention - ARE the sacrament. The Council of
Florence teaches, "If any of these is lacking, the sacrament is
not fulfilled" (Denzinger 695). The Councils of Constance and
Trent have the same teaching.
Now, in the case of an infant, the baptism is certainly valid if
the priest with proper intention performs the integral rite. In
the baptism of an adult, the candidate must have the intention to
be baptized. If he should withhold this intention, the baptism is
invalid. However, receiving baptism "simply out of social
custom" and therefore presumably without faith and penance, but
WITH THE INTENTION TO BE BAPTIZED, renders the baptism illicit,
though still valid.
I welcome a further query if this is not clear.
Sincerely in Christ,
Father Mateo
- Glory be to the Father, and to the Son, and to the Holy Spirit -
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